GPAT Model Paper
Q.l The
vitamin essential in tissue culture medium is
(A)
Pyridoxine (B) Thiamine (C) Nicotinic acid (D) Inositol
Ans. B
Q.2 Gingkgo
biloba is used for its
(A)
Expectorant activity (B) Lipid lowering activity
(C) PAF
antagonistic activity (D)Antidepressant activity
Ans. C
Q.3 The
amount of barbaloin present in Aloe
vera is
(A) <1%
(B) 3.5-4% (c) 1-1.5% (D) 2-2.5%
Ans. B
Q.4
Sildenafil is used for treatment of one of the following disorders :
(A) Systolic
hypertension (B) Unstable angina
(C) Pulmonary
hypertension (D) Hypertension due to eclampsia
Ans. C
Q.5 Cardiac
glycosides have the following configuration in the aglycone part of the steroid
nucleus :
(A) 5a, 1 4 a -
5a, 14β- (C) 5β, 1 4 a - (D) 5β,14β-
Ans. D
Q.6 Quassia
wood is adulterated with
(A) Brucea
antidysentrica (B) Cassia angustifoila
C) Cinnamomum
zeylanicum (D) Cephaelis ipecacuanaha
Ans. B
Q.7 Eugenol
is present in
(A) Fennel
(B) Tulsi (C) Cardamom (D) Coriander
Ans. B
Q.8 Which one
of the following drugs is prescribed for the treatment of Philadelphia chromosome
positive
patients with
Chronic myeloid Leukemia?
(A)
Pentostatin (B) Methotrexate
(C) Imatinib
(D) L-Asparaginase
Ans. C
Q.9 Which of
the following monoclonal antibodies is prescribed for patients with
non-Hodgkin's
Lymphoma?
(A)
Infliximab (B) Abciximab (C) Gemtuzumab (D) Rituximab
Ans.
Q.10 Identify
the drug which is NOT used in the treatment of malaria caused byPlasmodium
falciparum :
(A.)
Artemisinin (B) Primaquine (C) Quinine (D) Mefloquine
Ans. B
Q.ll Which
one of the following drugs does NOT act through G-Protein coupled
receptors?
(A)
Epinephrine (B) Insulin (C) Dopamine (D) TSH
Ans. B
Q.12 Which
one of the following drugs is most effective in preventing transmission of HIV
virus from the mother
to the
foetus?
(A)
Lamivudine (B) Zidovudine (C) Indinavir (D) Ribavirin
Ans. B
Q.13
Improvement of memory in Alzheimer's disease is brought about by drugs which
increase transmission in
(A)
cholinergic receptors (B) dopaminergic receptors
(C) GABAergic
receptors (D) adrenergic receptors
Ans. A
Q.14 Which of
the following non-opioid analgesics is a prodrug?
(A) Piroxicam
(B) Celecoxib (C)Nabumetone (D) Ketorolac
Ans. C
Pharmacophore
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Q.15 Which
one of the following drugs is NOT a typical anti-psychotic agent?
(A)
Chlorpromazine (B) Haloperidol
(C)
Risperidone (D) Flupentixol
Ans. C
Q.16 Which
one of the followings is a plasminogen activator?
(A)
Tranexamic acid (B) Streptokinase
(C)
Aminocaproic acid (D) None of the above
Ans. B
Q.17
Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed with improved neuromuscular function by using
(A) Donepezil
(B) Edrophonium (C) Atropine (D) Pancuronium
Ans. B
Q.18 Which
one of the following drugs specifically inhibits calcineurin in the activated T
lymphocytes?
(A)
Daclizumab (B) Prednisone (C) Sirolimus (D) Tacrolimus
Ans. D
Q.19 The
chemical behaviour of morphine alkaloid is
(A) acidic
(B)Basic (C) neutral (D) amphoteric
Ans. B
Q.20 At
physiological pH the following compound would be MOSTLY in the
(A) cationic
form (B) unionized form
(C)zwitterionic
form (D) anionic form
Ans.
Q.21 Which
one of the followings is used as a mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder and
also in certain epileptic
convulsions?
(A)
Phenytoin (B) Lithium
(C) Sodium
valproate (D) Fluoxetine
Ans. B
Q.22 An
isosteric replacement for carboxylic acid group is
(A) pyrrole
(B) isoxazole (C) phenol (D) tetrazole
Ans.-D
Q.23 The
given antibiotic is an example of ansamycins :
(A)
Roxythromycin (B) Adriamycin (C) Aureomycin (D) Rifamycin
Ans. D
Q.24 For
glyburide, all of the following metabolic reactions are logical EXCEPT
(A)
O-demethylation (B) aromatic oxidation
(C) benzylic
hydroxylation (D) amide hydrolysis
Ans. B
Q.25 The
effects observed following systemic administration of levodopa in the treatment
of Parkinsonism have
been
attributed to its catabolism to dopamine. Carbidopa, can markedly increase the
proportion of levodopa that
crosses the
blood-brain barrier by
(A)
increasing penetration of levodopa through BBB by complexation with it
(B)
decreasing peripheral metabolism of levodopa
(C)
decreasing metabolism of levodopa in the CNS
(D)
decreasing clearance of levodopa from the CNS
Ans. B
Q.26
Ethambutol molecule has
(A) two
chiral centers and 3 stereoisomers
( B) two
chiral centers and 4 stereoisomers
(C) two
chiral centers and 2 stereoisomers
(D) one
chiral center and 2 stereoisomers
Ans. B
Pharmacophore
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Q.27 A
compound will be sensitive towards IR radiation only when one of the following
properties undergo
transition on
(A)
Polarizability (B) Dielectric constant
(C) Dipole
moment (D) Refractivity
Ans. C
Q.28 X-ray
crystallographic analysis of an optically active compound determines its
(A) Optical
rotatory dispersive power (B) Absolute configuration
(C) Relative
configuration (D) Optical purity
Ans.
Q.29 Which
one of the following statements is WRONG?
(A) A singlet
or triplet state may result when one of the electrons from the HOMO is
excited to
higher energy levels
(B) In an
excited singlet state, the spin of the electron in the higher energy orbital is
paired with
the electron in the ground state orbital
(C) Triplet
excited state is more stable than the singlet excited state
(D) When the
electron from the singlet excited state returns to ground state, the molecule
always shows
fluorescence
phenomenon
Ans. C
Q.30
Aminotransferases usually require the following for their activity :
(A)
Niacinamide (B)Vitamin B12
(C) Pyridoxal
phosphate (D) Thiamine
Ans. C
Q.31 Purity of
water can be assessed by determining one of its following properties
instrumentally :
(A) pH (B)
Refractivity (C) Viscosity (D) Conductivity
Ans. D
Q.32 Which
one of the following statements is WRONG?
(A) Carbon
NMR is less sensitive than proton NMR
(B) 12C
nucleus is not magnetically active
(C) Both 13C
and *H have same spin quantum numbers
(D) The
gyromagnetic ratio of *H is lesser than that of1 C
Ans.D
Q.33 In the
TCA cycle, at which of the following enzyme-catalyzed steps, incorporation of
elements of water into
an
intermediate of the cycle takes place :
(A) Citrate
synthase (B) Aconitase
(C) Maleate
dehydrogenase (D) Succinyl Co-A synthase
Ans. C
Q.34
Humectants added in cosmetic preparations generally act by
(A) hydrogen
bond formation (B) covalent bond formation
(C) complex
formation (D) the action of London forces
Ans. A
Q.35 In the
mixing of thymol and menthol the following type of incompatibility occurs :
(A) Chemical
incompatibility (B) Therapeutic incompatibility
(C) Physical
incompatibility (D) Tolerance incompatibility
Ans. C
Q.36 Bloom
strength is used to check the quality of
(A) Lactose
(B) Ampoules
(C) Hardness
of tablets (D)Gelatin
Ans. D
Q.37 The
characteristic of non-linear pharmacokinetics include :
(A) Area
under the curve is proportional to the dose
(B)
Elimination half-life remains constant,
(C) Area
under the curve is not proportional to the dose
(D) Amount of
drug excreted through remains constant
Ans. C
Q.38 In the
Drugs and Cosmetics Act and Rules, the Schedule relating to GMP is
(A) Schedule
M (B) Schedule C (C) Schedule Y (D) Schedule H
Ans. A
Pharmacophore
Solutions
Q.39
Thioglycolic acid-like compounds have applications in following type of
cosmetic
formulations
:
(A)
Depilatory preparations (B) Epilatory preparations
(C) Vanishing
creams (D) Skin tan preparations
Ans. A
Q.40 Which
one of the following is a flocculating agent for a negatively charged drug?
(A) Aluminium
chloride (B) Bentonite
(C)
Tragacanth (D) Sodium biphosphate
Ans.
Q.41 The
healing agent used in hand creams is
(A) soft
paraffin (B) urea
(C) bees wax
(D) stearyl alcohol
Ans. A
Q.42
Measurement of inulin renal clearance is a measure for
(A) Effective
renal blood flow (B) Renal drug excretion rate
(C) Active
renal secretion (D) Glomerular filtration rate
Ans. D
Q.43 Highly
branched three dimensional macromolecules with controlled structures with all
bonds originating
from a
central core are known as
(A)
cyclodextrins (B) dextrans (C)dendrimers (D) liposomes
Ans.
Q.44 Which
one of the following is the commonly used bulking agent in the formulation of
freeze dried low dose
drug
products?
(A) Sodium
chloride (B) Mannitol
(C) Starch
(D) HPMC
Ans.
Q.45 The
applicability of Noyes-Whitney equation is to describe
(A) First
order kinetics (B) Zero order kinetics
(C) Mixed
order kinetics (D)Dissolution rate
Ans. D
Q.46 Which
filler can NOT be used for the preparation of tablets for amine
containing basic drugs to avoid
discoloration
of the tablets?
(A) Dicalcium
phosphate (B) Microcrystalline cellulose
(C) Starch
(D) Lactose
Ans. D
Q.47 The
ability of human eye using illuminated area to detect a particle is limited to
(A) 0.4
micron (B) 25 micron (C) 50 micron (D) 10 micron
Ans.
Q.48 What
quantities of 95 % v/v and 45 % v/v alcohols are to be mixed to make 800 mL of
65 % v/v alcohol?
(A) 480 mL of
95 % and 320 mL of 45 % alcohol 4
(B) 320 mL of
95 % and 480 mL of 45 % alcohol
(C) 440 mL of
95 % and 360 mL of 45 % alcohol
(D)360 mL of
95 % and 440 mL of 45 % alcohol
Ans. B
Q.49 The role
of borax in cold creams is
(A)
anti-microbial agent
(B) to
provide fine particles to polish skin
(C) in-situ emulsifier
(D)
antioxidant
Ans. A
Pharmacophore
Solutions
Q.50 Choose
the right combination:
(A) Quinine',
antimalarial, isoquinoline alkaloid
(B)
Reserpine, -antihypertensive, indole alkaloid
(C)
-Quantitative microscopy, stomatal number, myrrh
(D) Palmitic
acid, salicylic acid , fatty acids
Ans. B
Q.51
Triterpenoids are active constituents of
(A) Jaborandi
(B) Rhubarb
(C)
Stramonium (D) Brahmi
Ans.D
Q.52
Alkaloids are NOT precipitated by
(A) Mayer's
reagent (B) Dragendroff Reagent
(C) Picric
acid (D) Millon's reagent
Ans. D
Q.53
Anisocytic stomata are present in
(A)
Senna (B)Digitalis(C) Belladonna (D) Coca
Ans. C
Q.54 Bacopa
monnieri plant belongs to the family
(A)Scrophulariacea
(B) Leguminosae (C) Polygalaceae (D) Rubiaceae
Ans. A
Q.55 Tropane
alkaloids are NOT present in
(A) Datura
stramonium
(B) Erythroxylum
coca
(C) Duboisia
myoporoides
(D) Lobelia
inflata
Ans. D
Q.56 Guggul
lipids are obtained from
(A) Commiphora
molmol
(B) Boswellia
serrata
(C) Commiphora
wightii
(D) Commiphora
abyssinica
Ans. C
Q.57 An
example of N-glycoside is
(A) Adenosine
(B) Sinigrin
(C)
Rhein-8-glucoside
(D) Aloin
Ans. A
Q.58 One mg
of Lycopodium spores used in quantitative microscopy contains an average of
(A) 94,000
spores (B) 92,000 spores (C) 90,000 spores (D) 91,000 spores
Ans. A
Q.59 Select
the correc: combination of drugs for the treatment of patients suffering from
Hepatitis C :
(A)
Interferon with Ribavirin (B) Interferon with Zidovudine
(C)
Interferon with Stavudine (D) Interferon with Lamivudine
Ans. B
Q.60
Aliskiren acts by
(A)
inhibiting the conversion of Angiotensin I to II
(B)
inhibiting the release of rennin
(C)
inhibiting the binding of Angiotensin II to the receptor
(D)
inhibiting the action of aldosterone
Ans. B
Pharmacophore
Solutions
Q.61
Digitalis toxicity is enhanced by co-administration of
(A) Potassium
B) Quinidine (C) Diuretics (D) Antacids
Ans. B &
C
Q.62 The rate
limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis is one of the followings :
(A)
LDL-receptor concentration (B) VLDL secretion
(c) Mevalonic
acid formation (D) Co-enzyme A formation
Ans. C
Q.63 Which
one of the following drugs is withdrawn from the market due to torsade de
pointes?
(A)
Chlorpromazine (B) Astemizole
(C)
Haloperidol (D) Domperidone
Ans. B
Q.64
Ganciclovir is mainly used for the treatment of infection caused by
(A)
Cytomegalovirus (B) Candida albicans
(C) Herpes
zoster virus (D) Hepatitis B virus
Ans. A &
C
Q.65 Identify
the one rational combination which has clinical benefit :
(A)
Norfloxacin - Metronidazole (B) Alprazolam - Paracetamol
(C) Cisapride
– Omeprazole (D)Amoxycillin - Clavulanic acid
Ans. D
Q.66 Stevens
Johnson sjmdrome is the most common adverse effect associated with one of the
following category
of drugs :
(A)
Sulphonamides (B) Macrolides
(C)
Penicillins (D) Tetracyclines
Ans. A
Q.67
Amitryptyline is synthesized from the following starting material :
(A) Phthalic
anhydride (B) Terephthalic acid
(C)
Phthalamic acid (D) Phthalimide
Ans. B
Q.68 The
common structural feature amongst the three categories of anticonvulsant drugs
barbiturates,
succinimides
and hydantoins is
(A) ureide
(B) imidazolidinone
(C)
dihydropyrimidine (D) tetrahydropyrimidine
Ans. A
Q.69
Nicotinic action of acetylcholine is blocked by the drug
(A) Atropine
(B) Carvedilol
(C)
Neostigmine ( D ) d-Tubocurarine
Ans. D
Q.70 Chemical
nomenclature of procaine is
(A)
2-Diethylaminoethyl 4-aminobenzoate
(B)
N,N-Diethyl 4-aminobenzoate
(C)
4-Aminobenzamidoethyl amine
(D)
4-Amino-2-diethylaminoethyl benzoate
Ans. A &
D
Q.71
Barbiturates with substitution at the following position possess acceptable
hypnotic
activity :
(A)
1,3-Disubstitution (B) 5,5-Disubstitution
(C)
1,5-Disubstitution (D) 3,3-Disubstitution
Ans. B
Q.72
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is
(A)
Imipramine (B) Iproniazide (C) Fluoxetin (D)Naphazoline
Ans. C
Q.73 Proton
pump inhibitors like omeprazole and lansoprazole contain the following ring
system :
(A)
Pyrimidine (B)Benzimidazole (C) Benzothiazole (D) Oxindole
Ans. B
Q.74 A
metabolite obtained from Aspergillus terreus that can bind
very tightly to HMG CoA reductase enzyme is
(A)
Fluvastatin (B) Cerivastatin (C) Lovastatin (D) Somatostatin
Ans. C
Pharmacophore
Solutions
Q.75
Cyclophosphamide as anticancer agent acts as
(A)
alkylating agent before metabolism (B)alkylating agent after metabolism
(C)
phosphorylating agent after metabolism (D) DNA intercalating agent
Ans. B
Q.76
Artemisinin contains the following group in its structure :
(A) an
endoperoxide (B) an exoperoxide
(C) an
epoxide (D) an acid hydrazide
Ans. A
Q.77 Indicate
the HPLC detector that is most sensitive to change in temperature :
(A) PDA
detector (B) Refractive Index detector
(C)
Electrochemical detector (D) Fluorescence detector
Ans. B
Q.78 One of
the following statements is NOT true :
(A) Accuracy
expresses the correctness of measurement
(B) Precision
represents reproducibility of measurement
(C) High
degree of precision implies high degree of accuracy also
(D) High
degree of accuracy implies high degree of precesion also
Ans. C
Q.79 In
thiazides following substituent is essential for diuretic activity :
(A) Chloro
group at position 6 (B) Methyl group at position 2
(C)
Sulphamoyl group at position 7 (D) Hydrophobic group at position 3
Ans. C
Q.80
Streptomycin can NOT be given orally for treatment of tuberculosis
because
(A) it gets
degraded in the GIT (B) it causes severe diarrhoea
(C) it causes
metallic taste in the mouth (D) it is not absorbed from the GIT
Ans. D
Q.81 In
organic molecules, fluorescence seldom results from absorption of UV radiation
of wavelengths lower
than
(A) 350 nm
(B) 200 nm (C) 300 nm (D) 250 nm
Ans. A
Q.82 Glass
transition temperature is detected through
(A) X-Ray
diffractometery (B) Solution calorimetery
(C)
Differential scanning calorimetery (D) Thermogravimetric analysis
Ans. C
Q.83 In
Gas-Liquid Chromatography, some of the samples need to be derivatized in order
to increase their
(A)
volatility (B) solubility
(C)thermal
conductivity (D) polarizability
Ans. D
Q.84
Oxidative phosphorylation involves
(A) Electron
transport system
(B) Substrate
level phosphorylation
(C) Reaction
catalyzed by succinic thiokinase in TCA cycle
(D) None of
the above
Ans. A
Q.85 Coulter
counter is used in determination of
(A) particle
surface area (B) particle size
(C) particle
volume (D)all of A, B, C
Ans. D
Q.86 Drugs
following one compartment open model pharmacokinetics eliminate
(A)
bi-exponentially (B) tri-exponentially
(C)
non-exponentially (D) mono-exponentially
Ans. D
Q.87 The
temperature condition for storage of drug products under cold temperature is
given as :
(A)
temperature between 8°C and 25°C (B) temperature below 20C
(C)
temperature at 0°C (D) temperature between 2cC and S:C
Ans. D
Pharmacophore
Solutions
Q.88 Many
xenobiotics are oxidized by cytochrome P450 in order to
(A) increase
their biological activity
(B) increase
their disposition in lipophilic compartments of the body
(C) increase
their aqueous solubility
(D) all of
the above
Ans. D
Q.89 The
following protein/polypeptide has a quaternary structure :
(A)
cc-Chymotrypsin (B) Hemoglobin
(C) Insulin
(D) Myoglobin
Ans.B
Q.90 Drugs in
suspensions and semi-solid formulations always degrade by
(A) first
order kinetics (B)second order kinetics
(C) zero
order kinetics (D) non-linear kinetics
Ans.
Q.91 In nail
polish, following polymer is used as a film-former :
(A)
Nitrocellulose (B) Polylactic acid
(C)
Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose (D) Cellulose acetate phthalate
Ans. A
Q.92 Rabies
vaccine (living) is prepared using
(A) Sheep
blood (B) Mice lymph
(C) Horse
plasma (D) Fertile eggs
Ans.
Q.93 A drug
(200 mg dose) administered in tablet form and as intravenous injection (50 mg
dose) showed AUG of
100 and 200
microgram hr/mL, respectively. The absolute availability of the drug through
oral administration is :
(A) 125% (B)
250 % (C) 12.5% (D) 1.25%
Ans.C
Q.94
Geriatric population should be included in the following Phase of clinical
trials
(A) Phase I
(B) Phase II (C) Phase III (D) Phase IV
Ans. B
Q.95 Class
100 area is referred to
(A)
Manufacturing area (B) Aseptic area
(C) Clean
room (D) Ware house
Ans. B
Q.96 How many
mL of a 1:500 w/v stock solution should be used to make 5 liters of 1:2000 w/v
solution?
(A) 750 mL
(B) 1000 mL (c) 1250 mL (D) 1500 mL
Ans. C
Q.97 The
Volume of distribution of a drug administered at a dose of 300 mg and
exhibiting 30 microgram/mL
instantaneous
concentration in plasma shall be
(A)10 L (B)
100 L (C) 1.0 L (D) 0.10 L
Ans. A
Q.98 It is
required to maintain a therapeutic concentration of 10 microgram/mL for 12
hours of a drug having half
life of 1.386
hr and Vd of 5 L. The dose required in a sustained release product will be
(A) 600 mg
(B) 300 mg 30 mg (D) 60 mg
Ans.B
Q.99 Which
one of the following is NOT an ex-officio member of Pharmacy Council
of India?
(A) The
Director General of Health Services
(B) The
Director of Central Drugs Laboratory
(C) The Drugs
Controller General of India
(D) The
Director of Pharmacopoeia Laboratory
Ans. D
Q.100 In
which of the following techniques the sample is kept below triple point?
(A)
Lyophilization (B) Spray drying
(C) Spray
congealing (D) Centrifugation
Ans. A
